Assignment 2-Arbitrage free pricing 2.1 Forward Price of cash in Two Currencies (Simple Rates) (A) The 6-month beforehand $ gold monetary telephone of X (0) = Spot equipment casualty = $740.0, r$(0, 0.5) = 4.10% (since it is already correct for daycount, it raise be apply directly) Therefore, 6-month forward $ gold charge is X (0, 0.5) = X (0) à (1 + r$ à t) = $740.0 à (1 + 0.5 à 4.10%) = $755.17 (B) The spot $/₤ FX tell FX (0) is 1.5800 r ($)=Annualized money-market rate (4.10% on the $) r (₤)=Annualized money-market rate (6.30% on the ₤) So the 6-month forward $/₤exchange rate FX (0, 0.5) is: FX (0, 0.5) à [1 + r (₤) à t] = FX (0) à [1 + r ($) à t] FX (0, 0.5) =FX (0) à = 1.5800 à = à 1.5800 = 1.5632 The buck trades at a forward premium because r$ < r₤ (C) The 6-month forward ₤ gold price support be compute using the cash-and-carry equation on the spot price in ₤: X₤ (0) = X$ ÷ FX (0) = $740.0 ÷ 1.5800 ≈ ₤ 468.3544 X₤ (0, 0.5) = X₤ (0) à (1+ r£Ãt) = ₤468.3544 à (1+0.5 à 6.30%) = ₤483.1076 2.2 Forward Price and profess of a ⬠Zero verifier Bond (A) Generally, we assume the face value of zilch coupon stick with is â¬100. The present value of this 10-year zero coupon bond should be discounted by 6% during the 10 years. And because 6% is a classic heighten turn over, it should be compounded handle (1+ r) t So the Spot Price of Zero: PV= = = â¬55.8395 (B) We already got the present value of the bond which is â¬55.8395. The 3-month forward arbitrage-free price can be calculated by using the 3-months compounded let based on the present value. X (0, ¼) = X (0) à (1 + r) t = â¬55.8395 à (1 + 4.00%) ¼ = ⬠56.3897 The calculation can be explained by the following epitomize: (In order to get the face value of â¬100 at maturity, another 9 years will compound on the X (0, 1/4) by the 3-month forward yield r) ! 0 3-months...If you want to get a full essay, order it on our website: OrderEssay.net
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